Initial Tower Cab Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the phraseology to authorize an IFR flight-planned aircraft to depart VFR?
• Who must be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway?
• When is a single period used in flight plan routes in FDIO messages?
• IFR separation is required regardless of weather (VMC or IMC).
• Consider an aircraft cleared for touch-and-go as an arriving aircraft until it ___.
• Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection ___.
• The minimum required information to obtain when handling an emergency is the ___________, ____________, and _____________.
• Which term describes the time at which a departing aircraft is permitted to depart to maintain separation from other traffic?
• Which weight class completes the standard set Small, Large, Heavy, ___?
• When must controllers broadcast HIWAS alerts?
• Which outcome is ensured by the four-step position relief briefing process?
• When are two periods used in flight plan routes in FDIO messages?
• What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process?
• Who must new ATIS be disseminated to as Flight Data?
• At what point is a low approach or go-around considered a departure?
• LAHSO simultaneous takeoff and landing operations must only be conducted in which conditions?
• In CWT categorization, a GLF4 would be placed in which category?
• What is the tolerance for an Altimeter Setting Indicator at a precision approach facility?
• Aircraft assigned an EDCT should depart as close as possible to the EDCT but no earlier than ___ minutes before and no later than ___ minutes after the EDCT.
• What SRS is required between subsequent arrivals when at least one of the aircraft on approach to land is a CAT III?
• FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester FSS, and which Academy facility?
• Issue both midpoint and rollout RVR when the value of either is less than ___ feet and the value of the touchdown RVR is greater than the midpoint or rollout.
• Which form records the results and completion of training requirements for qualification courses, proficiency training, and other Agency-approved courses?
• Avoid clearances that ___.
• What does MARSA stand for in aviation terminology?
• In controller communications, what does the directive 'CROSS' indicate?
• During preventive control service, a controller will issue advice or instructions only under what condition?
• Which schedule describes when wind-direction and speed indicator readings must be checked at facilities with an associated NWS office?
• What happens on the LLWAS display when wind shear is detected by a remote station?
• The letter E in the left hand margin of FAA Form 7230-4 denotes a(n) __.
• Which option correctly defines a waypoint as used in flight planning?
• FDIO messages are composed of separate sections of data called ______.
• How can you pause an ATIS while recording?
• Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taxiing to which location for departure?
• The official ceiling and visibility is issued to departing IFR aircraft when the weather is ____________.
• Who is responsible for setting minimum certification hours?
• During a MARSA procedure, separation is required between participating military aircraft and which type of traffic?
• Helicopters are authorized to conduct simultaneous takeoffs if the ___.
• What is the minimum separation, in time, for a BE36 departing behind an MD11?
• Before observing the operational situation and work environment that you are to relieve, you should review the ___.
• What RwyCC value is used for minimal to non-existent braking action described as NIL?
• Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories including the position, altitude if known, and direction of flight to aircraft operating behind an aircraft that requires wake turbulence separation when ___.
• In radar operations, exact minimum course divergence for parallel runway departures released simultaneously is what?
• What verbal cue is used to indicate authorization to cross an active runway?
• What must be done if a trainee's training is suspended due to performance?
• All taxiway lights at Academy Airport are ___-intensity.
• What are the three basic types of landing gear?
• For how long after the last report or indication of wind shear/microburst, should an advisory statement be included on the ATIS?
• What is the correct phraseology to cancel the takeoff clearance for the succeeding aircraft?
• Which facility forwards ELT information to RCC?
• Avoid clearances that require Category ______ to taxi in proximity or hover-taxiing helicopters.
• Formation flights are treated as what for separation?
• In the example scenario, on which runway did Lear 102KM land?
• LLWAS wind information is used for operational purposes by which facilities?
• What type of report must be made for any occurrence involving air traffic services where collection of associated safety-related data and conditions is mandatory?
• A NOTAM provides timely information essential to flight operations about changes in which?
• Ground Control must also pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ____________.
• What will the tower cab display show if LLWAS has a data outage on one or more sensors?
• What are the three categories of aircraft?
• How long must an OJTI candidate be certified on a position before he/she can be considered for selection?
• Before using a runway not previously designated as active, which control action is required?
• Operate one-setting taxiway lights during the day when ___.
• Which scenario describes a no wake turbulence separation requirement?
• Which light signal should a pilot respond to by returning for landing when in flight?
• When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top, aircraft must ___.
• Which four aspects should be checked prior to broadcasting the ATIS message?
• For separation of helicopters, which adjustments may be more practical than course changes?
• At aneroid-instrument facilities, the margin for error on the comparison of two altimeter setting indicators is +/- ___ in. Hg.
• Which standby locations would emergency equipment go to for an emergency on Runway 34?
• Which control must be notified regarding a departing aircraft being taxied to a nonactive runway?
• What is the prominent identification feature of the C172?
• In planning, which factor must be considered along with aircraft performance, wake turbulence, closure rate, known weather conditions, and aircraft position to maintain separation after applying visual separation?
• Which duty is NOT generally included in LC position duties?
• When departing from a helipad, the distance threshold is measured from which reference?
• Which identification feature indicates where the wings are mounted on the fuselage?
• When applying initial separation to successive departing aircraft, what factor should be considered?
• On-the-Job Training is the correct choice for which scenario?
• Unless required for content completeness, an ATIS message should not exceed the optimum duration of ___.
• Who may suspend a trainee's training based on performance?
• When implementing a hold for release, if conditions allow, when should the aircraft be released?
• The FDIO display contains a print display area, _____________, and verify/non-verify mode indicator.
• Optimum duration of ATIS.
• If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level?
• Who does the trainee advise of any extenuating circumstance(s) that might impede training progress?
• Radar displays are set by the LC to which area of jurisdiction?
• Prior to being assigned OJTI duties, the selected individual must ___.
• What must be determined prior to the issuance of taxi instructions to an aircraft, vehicle, personnel, or equipment?
• What are the SRS categories?
• A Simulated Flameout approach pattern consists of __________.
• The inbound aircraft to a right base should be instructed with which phraseology?
• An ATIS broadcast is identified by ___.
• In a nonradar environment, for two departures on the same runway whose courses diverge by 45° or more within 5 minutes after takeoff, how many minutes of separation is required until courses diverge?
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from ___.
• Which of the following lengths is NOT a valid aircraft ID length?
• Operate the runway edge lights between sunrise and sunset when surface visibility is less than ___ mile(s).
• Where recorders are convenient to operating quarters, who performs recorder checks?
• One of the responsibilities of the training team is to ___.
• Which statement correctly describes Hold For Release (HFR) instructions?
• Which step describes taking on the duties and responsibilities of the relieved position?
• For how long must ATIS broadcast unauthorized laser illumination events?
• Operators may conduct 'coupled' or 'autoland' approaches to satisfy what requirements?
• Which option lists only valid fixed-wing category identifiers?
• What is the phraseology used for unstable conditions producing multiple wind shear alerts?
• What is the lowest usable flight level when the local area altimeter is between 28.91 and 27.92?
• When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated?
• In non-radar operations, what condition allows simultaneous departures from parallel runways on a given set of centerlines and courses?
• Controllers must advise pilots of hazardous weather contained in HIWAS broadcasts that may impact operations within how many nautical miles of their sector?
• What does OJF stand for in the training program context?
• In a nonradar environment, what must be true before allowing a second aircraft to take off from an intersecting runway when the first has not yet passed the intersection point?
• When must an advisory be issued if the ILS critical area is not protected and a 'coupled', 'CAT III', 'autoland' approach will be conducted?
• Separate Category E through I aircraft landing behind a departing Category B, C, or D aircraft on a crossing runway if the arrival will fly through the airborne path of the departure by a minimum of ___ minutes or the appropriate radar separation minima.
• N18NC, a LJ20, departs Runway 28R from the approach end. N56CD, a BE58, is waiting to depart Runway 28R at Charlie. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• The weather criteria to clear an aircraft for a visual approach is which of the following?
• Separate a Category I aircraft conducting a touch-and-go on the same runway as a preceding Category H aircraft departure by ___ minutes from the time the Category H aircraft ___.
• Which group should contact departure control about one-half mile beyond the runway end?
• UAL433, a DC10, departs Runway 28R on an Academy One departure. DAL201, a MD81, is waiting to depart Runway 28L on a runway heading departure. The runways are 2,500 feet apart. the soonest DAL201 can start takeoff roll is ___.
• If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway, quote them the appropriate parts of the NOTAM applying to the runway and ___.
• A M20P, N144TT, is requesting a touch-and-go behind a departing LJ35, N1HD. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• What document records monthly trainee progress discussions by the training team?
• What is the expected effect that a 1 to 5 KT crosswind will have on wake vortices?
• What is the sequence of an ATIS message?
• What is the format for a Remove Strip message on AAL233?
• When receiving a PIREP, record the ___?
• Issue departure information to departing aircraft by including the time when ____________?
• SWA210, a B737, departs runway 28R. A C550 is waiting to depart at an intersection. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• The information about the runway, wind, and altimeter may be omitted if the pilot states they ______________.
• An example of phraseology used to achieve proper spacing is ___________.
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from Southeast or MacDonald's Bridge?
• What is the primary objective of the LAHSO example phrase?
• Two-way ground-to-air checks of emergency frequencies are performed during low-activity periods at least once every ___.
• Except when a runway use program is in effect, use the calm wind runway when ___.
• When should frequencies be changed during emergencies?
• When is it necessary to include the departure runway in an ATIS message?
• What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports an NAVAID malfunction?
• Which of the following is not a recognized method of orienting an aircraft?
• Local Control ensures that performance of control instructions are in compliance with handbooks, facility procedures, and ___.
• What RwyCC value defines a COMPACTED SNOW on runway and is described as having GOOD to MEDIUM braking action?
• Which option is NOT listed among the basic tail configurations?
• Which item is NOT included in a standard SID unless required?
• Instruct civil aircraft, military transport, and cargo types to contact departure control about ___ mile(s) beyond the runway end.
• What is reported from certified direct-reading instruments?
• One purpose of the ATIS is to ___.
• The virgule (/) is used in the NOTAM text to ___?
• In helicopter takeoff sequencing, when can a second helicopter be cleared for takeoff?
• Which radius does the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast typically cover around the airport?
• Ground Control must obtain approval from ___ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway.
• A third party may be allowed to use FAA radio communications when the information pertains to ___.
• Which categories are specified as landing behind a departing Category B, C, or D aircraft on a crossing runway with the arrival required to stay clear by 2 minutes?
• If an aircraft sees the airport or runway but NOT the preceding aircraft, the aircraft may be cleared for a visual approach if radar separation or visual separation is maintained.
• A departure control frequency may be omitted in a clearance if____________
• Under FAR Part 91, who has final authority to determine the course of action in an emergency?
• Certification Skill Checks are administered by the trainee's ___.
• Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ___.
• Situations presenting an immediate hazard concerning safety of flight must be reported to the ___________.
• When in communication with an aircraft in distress, you should transfer responsibility ___.
• What RwyCC value defines ICE on the runway and is described as having poor braking action?
• When it is determined that an emergency aircraft has explosive material aboard, who should be notified?
• Which phrase would be used to indicate wind shear conditions requiring attention due to unstable conditions producing multiple alerts?
• When issuing wake turbulence advisories to any aircraft landing behind the arriving or departing Category B or D aircraft that is on the same runway or parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 feet, an example of the phraseology is ___.
• What is an unscheduled planning forecast describing conditions expected to begin sometime within the next 12 hours which may impact the flow of air traffic in a specific center's (ARTCC) area?
• What does LUAW stand for in runway operations?
• OJTI candidates are selected by ___.
• Which component, if lost, would pose the most risk to safety of flight?
• When is new ATIS released?
• An EDCT requires the aircraft to depart within what window relative to the assigned EDCT?
• Which format correctly updates the aircraft type for N34868 to BE36/A?
• UAL433, a DC10, executes a missed approach on Runway 28R. N310MN, a C310, is waiting to depart at the approach end. N310MN may start takeoff roll ___.
• In the standard IFR clearance item order, which element comes immediately after ACID?
• Who conducts the verbal briefing?
• Local Control provides safety alerts as part of its duties. Which option best describes this responsibility?
• Clear aircraft via routes consistent with the __________ stratum in which the operation is to be conducted.
• SVFR operations in weather less than VFR minima are authorized when ___.
• What action must be taken when 'FRC/(fix)' appears on a flight strip?
• What must a controller do when 'FRC' appears on a flight strip?
• In the LAHSO example phrase, which runway is the departing traffic using?
• '32A WSA 20K+ RWY 090 24' indicates that this is ____________.
• If the preceding aircraft is not in sight, clearance for a visual approach requires that either radar separation or visual separation be maintained.
• Runway braking action reports must always include the...
• Which type of forecast is the MIS?
• Issue the appropriate departure control frequency and beacon code before ___.
• When radar is available, BE36 departing after an MD11 must maintain a minimum radar separation of how many miles?
• PIREPs are disseminated by which unit?
• Which term should be used to indicate expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation?
• In an aviation emergency, which person has the final authority on action?
• Most CAT I aircraft generally operate within the 300 to 550 knots speed range.
• Which standby locations would emergency equipment go to for an emergency on Runway 34?
• Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ___ helicopters.
• Which phrasing correctly states the frequency combination used for taxi authorization on an active runway?
• Which weather product describes conditions expected to begin within the next 12 hours and may impact the flow of air traffic in an ARTCC's area?
• Any Academy equipment outages requiring issuance of a NOTAM must be reported to ___?
• How often is a FAA form 7230-4 generated?
• Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on ___.
• Which command is used to remove the flight strip UAL720 CID 112?
• In a nonradar environment, with no appropriate fix and NO approach control, allow a departure to take off ___ minute(s) before an arriving aircraft is estimated at the airport when the takeoff direction differs by at least 45° from the reciprocal of the final approach course.
• Who may use direct-dial or LLWAS wind information for operational purposes?
• When you receive information that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, inform the pilot of the ___.
• N288DS, a P28A, is downwind for touch-and-go on Runway 28L. AAL432, an MD81, is departing Runway 28L. N288DS may not ___ until ___ minutes after AAL432 rotates.
• Target time ___.
• Who has the responsibility for verifying that OJT/OJF times are recorded accurately?
• When information is received that a bomb is on or near an aircraft, what action should be taken?
• At Academy Tower, Local Control must forward to TRACON arrival times of all ___ aircraft.
• Which field is used to indicate the message type in an FDIO message?
• Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft ____.
• Which identification feature refers to the shape of the fuselage?
• If suitable landmarks are not available to determine distances on the same runway, a departing aircraft must not begin takeoff roll until the preceding departure has become airborne and crossed the runway end or ___.
• Between sunset and sunrise, what is the minimum distance from the landing threshold when a Category II aircraft is behind a Category I?
• The FAA form used by OJTIs and Operations Supervisors to record the performance and progress of the trainee is _____________.
• If an intersection takeoff request deviates from the 3-minute interval, what must you issue prior to clearance?
• When delaying departures on the ground, which sequencing rule should be followed?
• What term indicates bad or no braking action on an airport surface?
• Approve a pilot's request to cross Class C or D surface areas at a speed that does not exceed ___ knots, unless a higher minimum speed is required.
• Which term describes helicopter movement on the surface at speeds generally above 20 knots and below 100 feet AGL?
• Minimum information required for inflight emergencies.
• In non-radar operations, simultaneous same-direction departures from parallel runways may be authorized when centerlines are separated by how many feet or more and courses diverge immediately after takeoff?
• What is an example of the phraseology used for amending an altitude in a previously issued clearance?
• When using the OVERLAY/END switch, the 'ON LINE/MON EDITE/RECORD' switch must be in the ________ position.
• Can Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) be operated when the ALS is off?
• When must you issue a safety alert?
• Which of the following is a Category F aircraft?
• Field 08 is not included in a proposed _____________
• Performance Skills Checks are conducted at least ___.
• A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category?
• When should you relay the new ATIS code to the other tower operating positions?
• Which of the following is not among the FAA forms referenced for trainee records or facility operations?
• Which field carries the Aircraft ID in FDIO messages?
• Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages?
• Tower visibility is forwarded to which entity?
• A notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
• When wind shear is detected by a remote station, an audible alarm will sound and ____________.
• In wind shear alert phraseology, which wind is used to designate the wind near the boundary sensor location?
• Furnish the quality of braking action to all aircraft as received from ___.
• If a facility uses only aneroid instruments, the maximum discrepancy between two ASIs is
• What information is needed on arrival/departure messages when they are broadcast separately?
• What are the three basic types of engines found on aircraft today?
• Which command yields a flight plan readout for N23317?
• For LLWS or microburst, ATIS must include wind shear information for at least how many minutes after the last report?
• At a tower that is not combined with a radar approach control, the Certified Tower Radar Display may be used for ____
• Which option is a T-tail?
• To be cleared for a visual approach, overtaking aircraft must be advised of the ___ and ___ of the preceding aircraft.
• The Status Information Area (SIA) ___.
• When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT ___?
• Issue current touchdown RVR to departing aircraft for the runway in use when the prevailing visibility is ___ or less.
• Before implementing a runway use program, coordination with which party is required?
• Weather minima for CVFP approach are a reported ceiling of at least ___ feet above MVA and visibility of at least ___ mile(s).
• What is the primary cause of runway incursions?
• A Performance Skill Check is used to ___.
• Before and after applying visual separation, what must be ensured?
• Which option is used as the basis for equipment configuration in FAA facilities?
• What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect?
• Which of the following consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway?
• When aircraft elect to take a delay on the ground, issue departure clearances in the order _____________
• What does RCC stand for in Runway Condition Code terminology?
• Helicopters do NOT fall into a category because they are not fixed-wing aircraft.
• During simultaneous operations between departures and arrivals on parallel runways, the departure course must diverge immediately from the missed approach course by at least how many degrees until separation is applied?
• What is the format to send a Departure Message (DM) on N100WM at 2330?
• Which role is most likely to oversee the trainee's progression and monthly progress discussions?
• A predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach, progress reports, published VFR routes, etc., defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of lat/long coordinates.
• Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time?
• What element does Field 01 show?
• Position determination of an aircraft on the airport may be determined visually by the controller, by pilots, or through the use of ___.
• What is the term for any occurrence at an aerodrome involving inappropriate presence on the protected area of a surface designated for landing and takeoff?
• A microburst encounter poses a serious threat to aircraft during takeoff or landing because it produces which type of wind shear?
• Both specialists are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the ___.
• If radar is available, what is the minimum radar separation, in miles, for a BE36 to depart behind an MD11?
• Which combination of data is described as the minimum information to obtain during an aircraft emergency?
• With whom must the local controller coordinate before using a runway not previously designated as the active runway?
• It may be omitted from a clearance if the SID has the departure control frequency published on it.
• Two different instruments for measuring pressure are a barometer and ___.
• On the RCU in the recorder section, which switch places the associated recorder into the proper operating mode?
• Make a new recording of ATIS when...
• Operate runway edge lights between sunset and sunrise for arriving IFR aircraft ___.
• When is new ATIS released?
• What is always given when authorizing use of a runway and a tailwind component exists?
• Airport management must be advised when breaking action is reported as...
• The Certified Tower Radar Display's use in towers not connected to radar approach control is best described as providing which service?
• The ALS intensity settings are operated at Setting 2 during the day when the visibility is___.
• The FAA form used to record the results and the completion of training requirements for qualification courses, proficiency training, and other Agency-approved courses is Form ___.
• The FAA form used by OJTIs and Operations Supervisors to record the performance and progress of the trainee is Form ___.
• If LLWAS senses a problem at one or more sensors, the tower cab display will indicate '_____________' on the affected Line(s).
• The FAA form used to record the results and the completion of all training and serves as the official, permanent record for the employee.
• To separate a departing helicopter from an arriving helicopter, ensure the departure does not take off until the arrival has ____________.
• In the Runway Use Program, what tailwind component may be present for runways not clear and not dry?
• An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of ___ pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.
• Which groups of aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control about one-half mile beyond the runway end?
• Which term is included in the standard braking action descriptors?
• Which spacing phraseology is most associated with circling the airport to gain spacing?
• When should you relay the new ATIS code to the other tower operating positions?
• Which weather advisory is issued for significant weather phenomena not related to thunderstorms?
• On RNAV SID, when departures from the same runway/helipad or parallel runways are less than 2,500 ft apart, separation is by how many miles and degrees?
• Authorization for an aircraft to taxi on an active runway (other than crossing) must be communicated on which frequency?
• For closely spaced RNAV SID departures, what separation combination is specified for less than 2,500 ft apart?
• What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14?
• Where should wind information be oriented when issued by ATC if requested or deemed appropriate by ATC?
• In NOTAM text, the virgule is used to
• In a radar environment, departures from the same airport/heliport with radar identification established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway require courses to diverge by at least how many degrees?
• Which format to amend CID 214's aircraft identification to N6968G?
• Which of the following would be least likely to be considered when deciding whether to provide additional ATC services?
• What is the standard radio phrase to grant takeoff clearance?
• What word should be used only when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation?
• All LAHSO additional criteria, procedures, responsibilities and definitions are contained in which document?
• If you suggest that an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility?
• When the Local Controller authorizes the crossing of the active runway, they must verbally specify the runway to be crossed, preceded by which word?
• When one or both departures is from a helipad, use ________ as the threshold for reference when determining distance.
• What must be told to the aircraft if a SID does not contain crossing restrictions or is a SID w/ radar vectors?
• Which of the following is not generally considered a LC position duty?
• Which weather product provides hazardous in-flight weather information and is broadcast over selected VOR outlets?
• What common issue arises from heavy reliance on memory during relief briefing?
• Certification Skill Checks are administered by the trainee's...?
• Who is responsible for ensuring emergency vehicles have radio capability on the Ground Control frequency or are escorted to/from the accident scene?
• Which procedure is used by ATC to delay an aircraft for traffic management reasons?
• Which control position maintains direct communication with the aircraft and ensures separation of aircraft on the runways and in the designated airspace?
• When must the tower take/report prevailing visibility?
• What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104?
• What is the minimum distance for a Category I departing behind a Category III on the same runway?
• A leading edge of gusty surface winds from thunderstorm downdrafts.
• Which of the following is an example of the correct phraseology used to request an aircraft to hold short of a runway?
• Which statement describes action when ATIS code/message changes?
• Which category does the CL60 aircraft belong to?
• Straight-wing, swept-wing, and ___ are the three basic types of wing configuration.
• What is the primary function of TEAM?
• An aircraft weighing 300,000 pounds will fall into which weight class?
• When necessary for a wheeled helicopter to taxi on the surface area, issue ground movement information in accordance with __________.
• For clear and dry runways, unless a greater crosswind component is approved by the applicable Flight Standards Office, the crosswind component for the selected runway (including gust value) must NOT be greater than ___ KT.
• In the context of visual separation, which term describes the separation that remains valid after applying visual separation?
• What is required to be issued when severe icing conditions NOT associated with thunderstorms are occurring?
• Place IFR clearance items in correct order
• Which weather product is used to alert pilots about weather hazards that is a short-term, unscheduled forecast for ongoing weather within a two-hour window?
• Which taxiway width is 200 feet?
• Control formation flights are treated as what?
• Specific values of weather information may be transmitted to the pilot if the information is obtained from whom?
• When runways are not visible from the control tower and you are about to release an aircraft to the ground controller, what should you do?
• What term is included in ATIS following wind shear advisories and remains in effect until 20 minutes after the last report?
• Which organization is notified when an ELT is heard by a terminal facility?
• What is the phraseology for an aircraft on an unplanned IFR missed approach to Runway 10L?
• The LLWAS display panel located in the TRACON is normally used to report wind conditions ___________.
• What is the minimum reported ground visibility for a contact approach?
• Under what conditions should access to the ILS critical area be restricted?
• Whenever an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS Outer Marker (OM) or the fix used in lieu of the OM, do not authorize vehicles/aircraft to operate in the ILS critical area when conditions are a reported ceiling ___ feet or visibility ___ miles.
• When must facility frequencies be monitored?
• Which of the following is an example of LAHSO phraseology to hold short of an intersecting runway?
• Operate the Approach Light System (ALS) between sunrise and sunset when the prevailing visibility is 5 miles or less, or when the ceiling is less than ___ feet.
• ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded ___ information.
• IFR separation is required regardless of weather conditions (VMC or IMC). True or False?
• Under what condition is wind shear information included in ATIS for a minimum of 20 minutes after the last report?
• Which recorder switch setting allows the balance of a recording to remain active after an edit function has completed?
• When the runway is NOT visible from the tower, before transferring to the other frequency, the transferring controller must advise the receiving controller of what?
• The FAA form 7230-4 is generated on which schedule?
• This is a filler to ensure 15 questions are provided.
• When an aircraft is responding to an RA, the controller is not responsible for separation ________________.
• Ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted if the ceiling is above ___ feet and the visibility is more than ___ miles.
• LLWS alerts must be issued to whom until the pilot advises they have received the code, and how should they be broadcast?
• Lowest usable flight level when local area of jurisdiction altimeter is 29.91 to 28.92
• When arrival/departure messages are broadcast separately, the information should be what?
• Which option describes the tool used to maintain the arrival/departure sequence on the field?
• Preventive airport traffic control service is provided only to aircraft operating in accordance with what?
• Any vehicles on the runway must be clear of the runway before a departing aircraft starts takeoff. Which option correctly completes this rule?
• What is the purpose of the target time in the training program?
• How many Altimeter Setting Indicators (ASIs) are required in a terminal facility?
• Which unit is used to express the proximity of traffic to LUAW in flying distance reporting?
• When a PIREP is received, what information is documented?
• Land and Hold Short runways must be free of contamination with no reports that braking action is less than which level?
• When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you?
• Authorize simultaneous takeoffs, not flying an RNAV SID, for aircraft departing non-intersecting runways if runways diverge by at least _________.
• What is an unscheduled weather advisory issued for ATC used to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
• If LLWAS senses a problem at one or more sensors, the tower cab display will indicate 'STATION ERROR' on the affected Line(s).
• Which action must be taken before authorizing a runway crossing in most control environments?
• Before implantation of a Runway Use Program the ATM should coordinate with and encourage participation from who?
• In the ATIS broadcast, NOTAMS that affect operations should be included in the ...
• What does clearance void time indicate?
• Which of the following best describes the type of wind data LLWAS monitors?
• Inform the LUAW aircraft of the closest traffic within how many flying miles when requesting a full-stop, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, option, or low approach to the same runway?
• REILs are operated in conjunction with which lights?
• What is the final word in the SID phraseology after the SID name and number used to assign the departure?
• When applying same runway separation between departures, if the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter, what type of separation may be applied in lieu of distance minima?
• Information issued to arriving aircraft that will conduct an overhead maneuver includes which of the following?
• An IFR flight plan approach that authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport is a(n)
• When the RVR indicates a reportable value of 6,000 feet or less, issue the current ______ RVR for the runway in use to departing aircraft.
• What does the training team principally provide to the trainee?
• What is the basic radar separation between successive IFR departures?
• When radio communications cannot be established, an aircraft in takeoff position on the runway receiving a flashing red light signal should ___.
• In a nonradar environment, authorize simultaneous same-direction departures from parallel runways when centerlines are separated by _________ and courses diverge by __________ immediately after takeoff.
• Unscheduled observations that meet special criteria will be reported as a ___.
• When answering a public access telephone, you would first state which phrase?
• What does PA stand for in training contexts?
• In radar operations, arrivals can be separated from departures by a minimum of 2 miles when the separation will increase to 3 mils within 1 minute after takeoff. The 2-mile minimum is determined when which event occurs?
• The diameter of a microburst.
• Simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways may only be conducted under which weather condition?
• Aircraft and vehicle access to the ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure ILS integrity whenever the ceiling is less than ________ or visibility less than __________.
• ILS stands for which of the following?
• A safety alert is issued when an aircraft is in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
• Who may direct FD position to initiate an alert and/or classify the emergency situation?
• Unscheduled weather observations that meet special criteria are reported as which term?
• PIREPs must be forwarded to which unit for dissemination?
• Suspension of OJT can be made by a(n) ________ or ________ to stop training temporarily.
• Equipment configurations generally conform to ___.
• Braking action advisories must be issued when braking action is reported as less than which value?
• How would you clear an aircraft direct to a waypoint/fix?
• How is the type of time prefixed in Field 07 of FDIO messages?
• In a MARSA procedure, a controller provides separation between participating military aircraft and which type of traffic?
• What data is contained in Field 2 of FDIO messages?
• What color is the OVRD light when the system handset is used to override on-line recording?
• Not normally issued in a VFR-on-top clearance?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an aircraft identification feature?
• How many operational positions are you required to observe by On-the-Job Familiarization (OJF)?
• Who develops a training plan prior to the start of OJT?
• What condition requires issuing official ceiling and visibility to VFR aircraft?
• In the described wake turbulence scenario for N1HD, the separation is 3 minutes after rotation. Which of the following options reflects this rule?
• In the example scenario, Lear 102KM is classified as which aircraft category?
• Which of the following is an example of wind shear advisory phraseology?
• Which of the following is the correct phraseology to taxi an aircraft from Spartan Aviation, that is requesting an intersection departure?
• Controllers may authorize simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways only when __________.
• A release time is
• Which altitude instruction should be given to an aircraft on a SID when there are no crossing restrictions or the SID uses radar vectors?
• Which of the following is an example of wind data LLWAS can indicate during wind shear events?
• Hold For Release (HFR) instructions are ___.
• In runway condition codes, RCC 4 describes a surface condition equivalent to what?
• What term describes an unplanned abortive maneuver initiated by the pilot due to cockpit systems, characterized by maximum thrust climb in the terminal environment?
• During an airport emergency, what is the primary safety measure?
• Which item is always included in a departure clearance for relay by an FSS dispatcher?
• Who must Clearance Delivery relay tower visibility to?
• What is the purpose of setting radar displays to the appropriate area of jurisdiction?
• The width of Taxiway C is ___ feet.
• In a Simulated Flameout approach, which sequence represents the correct order?
• The width of Runway 28R is ___ feet.
• When issuing a wake turbulence advisory, which information should be included?
• ALS should be operated between sunrise and sunset under which condition?
• When an aircraft departs Runway 16/34, which control assigns the heading to IFR departures?
• Category I departing behind a Category E aircraft on the same runway requires a time separation of 2 minutes or radar separation of 4 miles.
• UAL10, a DC10, is departing from the approach end. N123JL, an LJ35, is waiting to depart from an intersection 600 feet down the runway. The soonest N123JL can depart is ___ minutes after UAL10 ___.
• Which form contains the time entry in UTC?
• In the LAHSO example, which traffic is mentioned?
• An aircraft weight 12,500 pounds or less with propeller-driven twin engines is considered which category?
• Before an arriving aircraft crosses the runway threshold, what must be ensured?
• ALD stands for which term in runway operations?
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control must pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ___ for relay to the FSS.
• LC must use which to maintain the arrival/departure sequence?
• Altitude restricted low approaches are not authorized below how many feet AGL?
• Which option demonstrates the proper abbreviated clearance to DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED with altitude 1100?
• Which document is used to assess an individual's progress on an operational position?
• Do not issue the word ___ in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi.
• TEAM is a permanent record for what?
• Which phraseology is the official way to authorize an IFR flight-planned aircraft to depart VFR?
• Which of the following is a correct example of intersection departure phraseology?
• At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert #___.
• In the daylight LAHSO context, what does CAT II refer to?
• What is an unscheduled weather advisory issued for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next 2 hours?
• A Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions within a radius of how many statute miles of the center of an airport's runway complex?
• In MARSA, which organization assumes responsibility for separation of participating aircraft?
• Which controller position is described as providing safety alerts and remaining alert for unsafe proximity situations?
• What are the two possible names for the two types of safety alerts? LP-16, pg. 15
• LLWAS alerts may indicate wind shear outside the network.
• In the given scenario, the correct phraseology to direct Baron 6CD to take off from Runway 28R when no other traffic is present is which?
• In non-radar environments with no approach services and no appropriate fix or time criteria, the departing aircraft must be established on a course diverging by at least how many degrees before the arriving aircraft begins procedure turn?
• Which feature is used to uniquely identify an ATIS broadcast?
• In FAA Form 3120-1, which section is designated for Management and Other Training?
• For arriving IFR aircraft, which statement about runway edge lights is true?
• Wake turbulence separation minima must continue to which action for all IFR aircraft not making a visual approach or maintaining visual separation?
• Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word(s) ___.
• When a CAT I is following a CAT III arrival, what runway separation is required?
• What is the purpose of the training team?
• Which group should participate in Runway Use Program planning before implementation?
• The time entered in the Time section of FAA Form 7230-4 will be in ___ time.
• An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and ___.
• Which of the following is not typically an On-the-Job Familiarization activity?
• Except where a runway use program is in effect, you should use the runway most nearly aligned with the wind when the wind is _____ KT or more.
• A pilot executing a visual approach must have the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight at all times.
• True or False: The LLWAS is designed to detect wind shear and microburst activity.
• When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct ___.
• What action is necessary when an emergency occurs on the airport proper?
• At Academy Tower, the Local Control position must use automatic releases on ___.
• When a runway use program is in effect, the selected runway must...
• Runway surface condition and Runway Condition Reading (RCR) should be issued to all ___ aircraft.
• During emergencies, frequencies should be changed only if there is a valid reason.
• In the position relief briefing process, when does the relieving specialist review the SIA?
• Which weather category is required to authorize a visual approach?
• What is the portion of a runway available for landing and rollout for aircraft cleared for LAHSO called?
• What statement must be included in the ATIS following a report of indication of wind shear?
• On a REIL three-setting system, Setting 2 must be used during the day when the visibility is ___.
• What is the meaning of an alternating red and green light to pilots or ground vehicles?
• Which weight class triggers runway use programs for turbojets?
• How does a release time impact other airborne aircraft?
• Before which action must the runway be free of all vehicles, equipment, and personnel?
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL?
• Wake turbulence advisory behind a larger aircraft requiring wake separation should be issued to which aircraft?
• Ground Control should forward requests to close VFR flight plans to which unit?
• PIREPs and Braking action reports must be forwarded to all the following except?
• The wake categories of aircraft are designated as which of the following?
• On-the-Job Familiarization (OJF) hours are hours spent ___.
• Information obtained from other than an authorized airport or FAA employee must be ___ before issuance.
• Immediately after previewing the position, which step begins?
• When ceiling is above 5,000 feet and visibility is more than 5 miles, which information may be omitted?
• An aircraft ID may contain up to how many characters?
• What is an example of the phraseology used for an abbreviated departure clearance?
• SVFR operations in weather less than VFR conditions are authorized only with what surface areas?
• A designated Short Take Off and Landing (STOL) runway may be assigned only when ___.
• Local Control must ensure that the runway is free of all known vehicles, equipment, and personnel before a ___.
• What is described by the notation '32A WSA 20K+ RWY 090 24'??
• When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT ___.
• An asterisk at the end of the LLWAS display is read as which of the following?
• Which action is an example of a spacing technique commonly used on final?
• In monitoring traffic, which factor does the LC use to predict possible overload?
• If there is no runway use program in effect, which wind condition indicates the calm wind runway should be used?
• The Low-Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS) is designed to detect what?
• Which item is used to guide the relief briefing and can be consulted during the handoff?
• In a radar environment, parallel runway departures may be released simultaneously if centerlines are separated by at least 2,500 feet and courses diverge by at least 15 degrees; which two details define this rule?
• What is the required phraseology for an aircraft on an unplanned IFR missed approach to Runway 28R?
• What term describes a departure time restriction issued by ATC to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic?
• The width of Runway 28R is how many feet?
• When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for ___.
• Departing aircraft that will be vectored immediately after takeoff must have their initial headings assigned when?
• When applying visual separation, the controller should inform the pilot about the other aircraft's position, direction, type, and intentions.
• Which acronym describes an IFR approach that allows proceeding visually to the airport via landmarks and other information while remaining clear of clouds?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard braking action descriptor?
• Which is the correct phraseology for LC to authorize GC to cross an active runway?
• Who should be notified if an emergency aircraft is known to be carrying explosive materials?
• Training which improves one's knowledge, skills, and abilities:
• This provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.
• In a nonradar environment, for two departures that will diverge by 45° or more immediately after takeoff, how many minutes of nonradar separation are required?
• Who directly receives the data from the LLWAS system?
• What is the recommended action for updating ATIS when new weather is received?
• If a trainee's performance is unsatisfactory during a practical exercise, which procedure is the initial step to address it?
• Which statement best describes the phraseology for an unplanned IFR missed approach to RWY 28R?
• AIRMETs supplement which forecast product?
• One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ___?
• In the LAHSO example phrase, which runway is the landing aircraft cleared to land on?
• In the AAC example, what is the ground control facility used?
• Wind shear coordination: Which statement describes the controller's responsibility during a wind shear escape?
• During which step does the relieving specialist verify correctness of information received?
• For helicopter departures, tailwind downwind takeoffs should not exceed how many KTs unless agreed by the pilot?
• Which statement best describes the requirement when a clearance amendment changes route?
• Which statement best describes why a clearance that requires greater than normal taxiing power should be avoided?
• Once established, participation in a formal runway use program is mandatory for which group?
• What is the maximum percentage of OJT hours that a trainee's OM or ATM may add to the target hours?
• Which document would you consult to verify the target hours of a trainee's program?
• Transfer control at a prescribed time, fix, location, or altitude and only after what?
• In the AAC example phraseology, which runway is designated for the intersection departure at Spartan Aviation?
• Which group must be informed about rubber-supported cables at the approach end?
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from Southwest, Sand Springs, Owasso, and Chandler?
• During the day, which taxiway lighting setting should be used when visibility is less than 1 mile?
• How many emergency staging locations are there on/at academy airport?
• Which positions are responsible for visually scanning the runway?
• LC must verbally coordinate with departure control for which operations?
• Which facility should be contacted for Academy equipment outages requiring a NOTAM?
• When applying visual separation, the controller ___.
• The LLWAS is comprised of at least how many remote stations?
• In what type of airport environments are runway incursions most likely to cause harm?
• The LLWAS system requires ___________.
• A B744 is executing a low approach on Runway 18, and a King Air is ready for takeoff on Runway 36 (opposite direction). The minimum separation required to clear the King Air for takeoff is ___ minutes.
• Which item may be omitted in IFR clearance if not applicable?
• There are two types of safety alerts in the ATC system. Which two are they?
• If the reported RVR differs from actual conditions by more than 400 feet, how should the RVR data be treated?
• What is the primary purpose of the ILS critical area?
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from the South or Riverside?
• Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest ___ feet.
• Which role is designated to administer Certification Skill Checks?
• In a nonradar environment, when the takeoff direction differs by at least 45° from the reciprocal of the final approach course, the departure must take off before the arrival leaves a fix inbound not less than ___ mile(s) from the airport.
• Which taxi route is used in the AAC example phraseology?
• The MIS is an unscheduled planning forecast describing conditions expected to begin within 4 to 12 hours which may impact the flow of traffic in __________.
• Which FAA form is used to record trainee progression by OJTIs and supervisors?
• During daylight LAHSO, the second CAT II may land if the first aircraft is at least how many feet from the landing threshold?
• Which document and paragraph define the wind shear alert phraseology used by local controllers?
• What is the format to amend the aircraft identification of CID 214 to N6968G?
• What data do LLWAS remote stations collect at their location and transmit to the master station?
• Which statement about wind shear alerts is correct?
• What is a shared responsibility between ground and local control?
• When must a Certification Skill Check (CSC) be conducted?
• What is the purpose of FAA Form 3120-25?
• TEAM is the electronic equivalent of which form?
• What type of training may include CBI, Instructor-led training, self-directed study, and simulation?
• In nonradar environment, parallel runways with simultaneous departures require centerline separation of at least what and courses divergence of at least how much immediately after takeoff?
• What is a Brasher Warning?
• College courses taken during FAA employment are entered in ___ of FAA Form 3120-1.
• The recommendation of whether or NOT training should be continued is made to the ATM/District Manager during the training review process.
• What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher?
• The 30-second average wind data for each corridor is determined by observing which rows of the LLWAS display?
• Which FAA form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance?
• What is the minimum ground visibility required for fixed-wing SVFR operations (excluding scheduled air carrier)?
• When issuing an RNAV SID, the controller is required to give the ______ to the pilot.
• Which form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) operation is required when visibility is less than how many miles?
• What is the reference line used as the runway centerline for a helicopter when determining separation with another aircraft?
• In distress communications, transfer of responsibility should occur only when what condition is met?
• If a preceding large aircraft has rotated, how many minutes must the following aircraft wait before starting its takeoff roll?
• What is a recorded hazardous in-flight weather forecast continuously broadcasted to airborne pilots over selected VOR outlets?
• A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a radius of _________ from the center of an airport's runway complex.
• Which unit is typically responsible for issuing initial departure clearances?
• Without ASDE-X, do not clear an aircraft for a landing, the option, or low approach on the same runway of an aircraft in LUAW status or taxing into position until __________.
• Which is the correct wind shear alert phraseology for local control referencing wind direction, velocity, sensor location, and boundary wind?
• In a nonradar environment, authorize takeoff of a succeeding aircraft from an intersecting runway when the preceding aircraft has _________, the runways diverge by 30° or more, and the courses will diverge by 45° or more.
• Runway surface condition readings (RCR) are issued to which group?
• In radar, when separating a helicopter departure from another aircraft using course divergence, what is treated as the runway centerline for the helicopter?
• Which is NOT a use of CRU-X information?
• Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when ___.
• Before penetrating another controller's airspace, what action is required?
• Who is responsible for ensuring that a proposed runway use program is in compliance with FAA Order 8400.9?
• Under minimum prescribed separation, the preceding aircraft must be ___ for the separation to be applied using landmarks.
• An FDIO system consists of a printer, keyboard, and ___.
• Minimum distance separation can be applied between two departing Category III aircraft if distances can be determined by reference to suitable landmarks, provided that the preceding aircraft is ___.
• At the Academy Tower, NOTAM information is posted in the ___.
• Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taxiing to which location for departure?
• What is the proper way to state the reported RVR value?
• When wind shear is detected, which indicators are activated on LLWAS?
• What are issued for thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hail 3/4 inch or larger, but do NOT include references to all weather associated with thunderstorms?
• If a NAVAID outage is reported, the initial step is to solicit reports from additional aircraft to verify the outage.
• Departure information to departing aircraft should include the time when requested. Which item is specifically included?
• What must be included with the altitude on a VFR-on-top clearance?
• Who must be notified when an ELT is heard or reported by a terminal facility?
• Which phraseology is used to achieve proper spacing?
• Landing information contained in the ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states which of the following?
• If a SID has been (or will be) assigned with the _______________ published on it, then it may be omitted from a clearance.
• To what weight class of aircraft do runway use programs always apply?
• Which block/section on Form 3120-25 contains the performance ratings such as Satisfactory?
• Which exact radio phrase identifies Runway 28R in the example sequence?
• Which statement correctly pairs an element with its measured value from the provided data?
• What is the correct phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?
• An example of phraseology for issuing an intersection departure is ___.
• What determines whether a departure clearance is voided?
• A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to ___.
• AAL210, an MD81, departs Runway 28R from the approach end. N10FD, a FA20, is waiting to depart Runway 28R at Charlie. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• When issuing a taxi clearance to a runway, what must be verified?
• The occurrence of a column of air perpendicular to the ground with acceleration toward the ground defines a _________.
• In a nonradar environment, authorize simultaneous departures from parallel runways when centerlines are separated by at least 3,500 feet and the courses diverge by at least how many degrees immediately after takeoff?
• What is an example of the phraseology used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short-range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed?
• An aircraft departing behind a Category B or D on the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet requires ___ minute(s) of wake turbulence separation.
• Do not request departing military turboprop/turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to make radio or radar beacon changes before the aircraft reaches ___ feet above the surface.
• The trainee signing FAA Form 3120-25 implies ___.
• Which action corresponds to removing the flight strip UAL720 CID 112?
• Local Control and Ground Control must coordinate the use of ____________.
• What ground visibility requirements exists for SVFR helicopters?
• Braking action advisories are in effect on ATIS when braking action is reported as ___.
• A METAR observation is taken ___?
• Under the Runway Use Program, what crosswind component is allowed for runways not clear and not dry?
• What is the basic radar separation between successive IFR departures?
• RA stands for which term in ATC terminology?
• A documented review used to evaluate an individual's training progress on an operational position is?
• Which term describes a condition where ATC may delay a departure until released?
• Which of the following aircraft is categorized as Category H?
• To which position do flight data forward departure flight strips go?
• LC must advise TRACON of all the following except which item?
• Ground Control must ensure stripmarking is completed for instructions or ___ issued or received.
• When a taxi clearance is to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct what?
• An IFR approach conducted while operating on an IFR flight plan that authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport via visual landmarks and other information is called what type of approach?
• When a pilot is ready for an intersection takeoff and his/her request for takeoff includes a request to deviate from the 3-minute interval, you must ___.
• Turn the rotating beacon on between sunrise and sunset when the reported ___.
• During a visual approach, the pilot must have which in sight at all times?
• What action should you take when the new ATIS is being broadcast?
• In a relief briefing, which action is explicitly discouraged?
• Which message indicates that RPA46 departed at 1815?
• Separate successive departures from same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helipads separated by less than 2,500 ft feet by ________ miles and ___________.
• A list of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called a ___.
• Who shares responsibility for the completeness and accuracy of the position relief briefing?
• A METAR observation is taken how often?
• Which defines Alert 3?
• In instrument landing system operations, what does a 'coupled' or 'autoland' approach imply?
• Training teams are established by the trainee's ___.
• A rapid change in wind speed and/or direction in a short distance, existing in a horizontal and/or vertical direction.
• Which category would the B737 belong to?
• During overhead Simulated Flameout (SFO) approaches, what should be issued to the aircraft at low key?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of an Instrument Departure Procedure?
• Who must be informed whenever rubber-supported cables are in place at the approach end of the landing runway?
• All of the following is contained on an SIA except?
• When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred?
• For LAHSO, which option identifies the term for the runway portion used for landing and rollout?
• What information is displayed on the LLWAS TRACON display?
• Provide airport traffic control service based only upon ___________.
• LLWAS data is directly received by which entity?
• Phraseology to clear an arriving aircraft for landing when the aircraft is not visually observed is which?
• An example of a technique used to achieve proper spacing includes telling the aircraft to _____________.
• Which of the following is NOT an approved pattern entry for RWY 28L/R from Southeast or MacDonald's Bridge?
• When does the ATIS identification code start over?
• Which statement is true about ATC services for model aircraft operating in the NAS at or below what altitude?
• Air Traffic Control services are not provided to model aircraft operating in the NAS ______________.
• Who uses the Satisfactory, Needs Improvement, and Unsatisfactory columns in Block 11 of FAA Form 3120-25?
• Visual separation may be applied between aircraft up to but not including ________________.
• Do not issue ___ instructions dependent upon the movement of arrival aircraft on the runway.
• The phrase '(ACFT-ID) POSSIBLE PILOT DEVIATION. ADVISE YOU CONTACT (facility) AT (telephone number)' indicates what?
• What current weather changes must be forwarded to the appropriate control facility?
• Before any runway use program is implemented, the ___ must coordinate with and encourage participation from the airport proprietor, local community, and aircraft operators who regularly use the airport.
• Local controllers must visually scan runways to the maximum extent possible.
• When an aircraft is responding to a wind shear escape, the controller is not responsible for separation between ___.
• When wind shear is detected by a remote station, what happens on the LLWAS display?
• Which of the following is a Category G aircraft?
• What RwyCC value defines a WET runway and is described as having GOOD braking action?
• What does SID stand for?
• FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester FSS, and which Academy facility?
• When the Academy FDIO is out of service, what action must the FD position take?
• Which feature notes engine location and the number of engines and is used as an aircraft identification feature?
• What will alert the controller that wind shear is present?
• Between sunrise and sunset if distances can be determined by landmarks, what is the minimum distance from the landing threshold for a Category I behind a Category I?
• If no data has been received for approximately how many minutes, Line 10 on the tower cab display will indicate COMMUNICATION FAILURE?
• Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when ___.
• What should you avoid doing, if an aircraft is responding to a wind shear escape?
• If you believe there is a communications failure, broadcast clearances through available means, including the voice feature of which facility?
• Which of the following is Category H aircraft?
• NOTAMS included in ATIS broadcast should be those that affect operations in which area?
• Who is responsible to take action to detect, prevent, and report false, deceptive, or phantom controller communications to an aircraft or controller?
• Identify the aircraft designation abbreviated as C208.
• Which is an example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID?
• An Alert #2 would indicate which type of difficulty?
• Which factor is most consistent with initial separation planning for successive departures in radar environments?
• What is the format to obtain a flight plan readout on N23317?
• Broadcast on ___________ frequencies to advise aircraft of a change in the ATIS code/message.
• Who has the legal authority to close a runway?
• To indicate N20WK aircraft type as Super King Air BE20/L, which amendment line should be used?
• Before broadcasting the message, the ATIS should be checked for ___.
• Which FAA form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• Which condition triggers issuing both midpoint and rollout RVR for a runway's touchdown RVR?
• What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?
• Which phrase indicates that a clearance involves crossing only the taxiways that intersect the taxi route?
• How would a '*' at the end of a LLWAS display be read?
• What is the format to amend the type of aircraft of N34868 to a BE36/A?
• The diameter of a microburst is defined as 2.5 miles or less.
• What is the correct sequence of the standard position relief briefing steps?
• In the hold-short phraseology example, what phrase is used to indicate traffic related to arriving or landing flights?
• Separate a Category I aircraft departing on the same runway from an intersection behind a preceding departing Category G aircraft by ensuring that it does NOT start takeoff roll until ___ minutes after the large aircraft has ___.
• Which statement identifies the main contributing factor to runway incursions?
• The LLWAS system is comprised of a minimum of ______ stations.
• The phraseology in response to a helicopter request for takeoff from a area off the airport is ___.
• Which control provides direct communication with the aircraft in the airport area and is primarily responsible for ground and airspace separation near runways?
• What is the width of taxiway A?
• Complete the LLWS alert dissemination rule: 'Controllers must issue LLWS alerts to ______ until ______ and pilot advises they have received the code'
• What is the correct phraseology to cancel the succeeding aircraft's takeoff clearance when the preceding departure aborts on the same runway?
• Training objectives, team members, and target hours can be found in the ___.
• The phraseology to authorize an aircraft to execute a restricted low approach is ___________.
• The phraseology to clear an aircraft for takeoff is which?
• If two aircraft depart on runways with flight paths crossing and are separated by 2,500 feet, what is the required wake turbulence separation?
• Which phraseology clarifies that only the amendment to the route is issued and the rest of the route remains unchanged?
• Which statement best describes LAHSO criteria regarding contamination and braking action?
• Which spacing technique involves the following: execute a left or right 360-degree turn to adjust spacing?
• Pilots reports of wind shear must be issued to all arriving and departing aircraft until which event occurs?
• What is the standard phraseology to authorize an aircraft to take off?
• Who may assign Supplemental OJT Time?
• The minimum distance required for a Category I departing behind a Category III on the same runway is ___ feet.
• Which data are reported by certified direct-reading instruments? (Variant of ATIS data)
• If LLWAS receives no data from one or more sensors, what will the tower cab display indicate on the affected lines?
• Runway Use Program aims to minimize what?
• Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ___ helicopters.
• Separate an aircraft departing behind a Category B or D departure on a parallel runway separated by 2,500 feet by ___ minute(s) if flight paths will cross.
• A controller's responsibility for applying Traffic Management initiatives and programs do NOT have priority over ___?
• A departing Cirrus SR22 is airborne. The earliest time you may clear a succeeding Piper Cherokee for takeoff from the same runway using minimum prescribed separation is ___.
• The runway closure in the NOTAM above is scheduled for ___.
• Which weather product describes meteorological phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight?
• Which facility forwards ELT information to RCC?
• To amend the route of flight in a previously issued clearance, the correct phraseology is _____________
• In non-radar parallel runway operations, what minimum centerline separation and divergence angle are required to authorize simultaneous departures?
• When delays exceed or are expected to exceed how many minutes should gate hold procedures be implemented?
• Local controllers must visually scan runways ___.
• Which statement most accurately reflects the ATIS message duration?
• When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the ___.
• Forward NOTAM data to the ___.
• What action is required when landing area conditions information is obtained from other than authorized airport or FAA personnel?
• LC must advise TRACON of all the following except which?
• Which option demonstrates the correct phraseology for clearing to Tulsa Airport via J104 with the digits spoken as words?
• In the ATIS sequence, which element is presented second?
• Which option is NOT one of the basic tail configurations listed?
• What is the format to amend the proposed departure time of N2314S to 1345?
• For CVFP weather minima, the required ceiling and visibility are 500 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
• What are the wake categories of aircraft?
• Ground Control must advise Local Control when an aircraft does what?
• Which step involves taking on the duties and responsibilities of the position?
• Which amendment line is used to reflect BE20/L for N20WK?
• Which forecast product is specifically used to describe aviation weather for an individual airport and surrounding area?
• At FAA facilities with an associated NWS office, wind-direction and speed indicator readings must be checked when?
• Which identification feature concerns the presence and arrangement of windows on the aircraft?
• Which term defines the target time in OJT programs?
• When route and altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended, _____________ must be restated.
• A wind speed __ KT will result in a 'CALM' message being displayed on the LLWAS display panel
• Operate Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) when the visibility is less than ___ mile(s).
• Which FAA form is used to record weather description on a trainee's record?
• In a scenario where an ELT information must be forwarded to the RCC, which facility handles this?
• Do not allow vehicles or aircraft operations in or over the ILS critical area when an arriving aircraft is inside the MM, 1/2 miles final, and the weather observation indicates a ceiling of less than _________ or RVR less than __________.
• In Block 4 of FAA Form 3120-25, the weather is described as VFR, ___, IFR, or Other.
• The basic weather instrument equipment for terminals includes wind indicators and ___.
• What is used to determine the runway centerline when authorizing a simultaneous departure/arrival to/from a helipad?
• What is the correct phraseology for instructing a vehicle/aircraft to cross a runway?
• HIWAS alerts are broadcast by controllers upon receipt of hazardous weather information. Which statement is true?
• Which ID code is used when ATIS resumes after more than 12 hours of outage?
• What term describes precise taxi instructions given to a pilot unfamiliar with the airport or issued in stages that may include step-by-step directions?
• How would a Boeing 737-800 be written on a flight strip?
• Assign an aircraft on a contact approach an altitude of how many feet at or below other IFR traffic?
• In runway condition codes, RCC 5 indicates a WET runway with what braking action?
• Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery position?
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from which unit?
• When does assumption of the position take place?
• Which weather product provides forecasted meteorological conditions within a radius around the airport's runway complex?
• What are the weight classes of aircraft?
• Which system provides wind information to towers for operational use?
• In the scenario where an IFR aircraft requests a ground delay but the pilot wants to depart VFR, what should be relayed to approach control facility?
• What does a flashing green light to an aircraft in flight mean?
• What do AIRMETs supplement?
• Who can recommend additional training hours?
• Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and ___.
• If the Academy FDIO is out of service, which action is required by the FD position regarding IFR clearances?
• The Certification Skill Check session ___.
• An example of phraseology used to achieve proper spacing is __________.
• In the wake turbulence scenario, the required separation is counted after which event?
• What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft on the ground indicate?
• Which identification feature involves the arrangement of the tail surfaces?
• An AIRMET is issued to supplement what type of weather report?
• Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft leaves the ground. Which option correctly completes the statement?
• Line 1 of the tower cab LLWAS display panel shows averaged Airport Wind (AW), _______________ and audible alarm status. Which time standard is used?
• What does OJF stand for?
• Which phraseology would be used to clear to Tulsa Airport via Victor Fourteen?
• Which statement describes the three basic wing placements found on aircraft?
• A PIREP is a report of meteorological phenomena that is ___.
• When should a new ATIS broadcast be made?
• If RVR is not acceptable due to a difference of more than 400 feet, which statement is true?
• A time used by ATC to advise an aircraft that the departure release is automatically cancelled if takeoff is not made prior to a specific time.
• A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway authorizes the aircraft to cross all taxiways ___.
• An FAA wind-direction indicator is out of tolerance when it differs from another indicator on the same sensor by how many degrees?
• If an aircraft is responding to a TCAS RA, which action would be incorrect?
• In FDIO routing notation, what is the purpose of using two periods between elements?
• An Alert #3 would indicate which type of event?
• FDIO messages are composed of separate sections of data called _________.
• When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, ___.
• When a Runway Use Program is in use, ATC will assign a runway that is ___________.
• Local control must coordinate with Ground control before using a runway not previously designated as active.
• Separate aircraft departing an intersecting runway behind a Category B or D departure by ___ minute(s) if projected flight paths will cross.
• Runway braking action must be described using the terms
• What does AW stand for on the LLWAS display?
• Start over with the ID code 'Alpha' when ATIS service is resumed after being off the air for more than how many hours?
• SWA601, a B737, executes a missed approach over Runway 28R. N1388V, a C421, is waiting to depart Runway 16. N1388V may depart ___.
• Who must assure emergency vehicles has radio capability on Ground Control frequency or are escorted to/from accident scene?
• Local Control prioritizes actions according to their significance in the ___.
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at speeds generally above 20 knots and below 100 feet AGL, with the last option being the correct term?
• Traffic advisories are NOT provided to an aircraft in which situation?
• Situations that present an immediate hazard should be reported to the ___?
• Before using a nonactive runway, the Local Controller must coordinate with which other control position?
• Use the word __________ only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
• Which spacing phraseology is used to instruct an aircraft to extend downwind to gain spacing?
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL?
• Recognized methods of orienting an aircraft include radar, NAVAIDs, pilotage, and ___.